EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question2: Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

Question3: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question4: Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance?

Question5: A Backup Administrator must perform a backup of a VM running a highly-transactional Microsoft SQL Server. Point-in-time database recovery is a requirement.
Which options must the Backup Administrator select in order for the Backup Job to provide the proper level of recovery? (Choose two.)

Question6: Which of the following statements are true when comparing a synthetic full backup to an active full backup, on a NTFS-based Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question7: When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository?

Question8: What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

Question9: Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question10: Which of the following applications should be backed up using pre-freeze and post-thaw scripts to ensure transactional consistency?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question11: When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question12: Which Veeam Backup & Replication component or service should be added to the scenario below in order to optimize backups to an off-site CIFS share?

Question13: A Backup Administrator configures a backup copy job containing several VMs each of which are backed up by different daily jobs. How many backup files will be created as the result of the initial successful run of the backup copy job? (Choose two.)

Question14: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question15: Which of the following objectives is achieved by adding additional proxy servers, in conjunction with parallel processing? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question16: Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

Question17: Your Veeam Backup & Replication environment currently has three Backup Jobs, each containing a single virtual machine with three restore points. You configure a new Backup Copy Job, add all three virtual machines and wait for the first initial copy to complete. Depending on the Simple Backup Repository configuration, how many VBK files will be created on the Simple Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question18: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

Question19: Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question20: Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

Question21: Once it has been deployed and data has been collected, which Veeam product can estimate when Backup Repositories will run out of disk space and will tell you how much more disk space you will need if you continue doing backups the same way?

Question22: When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job completes?

Question23: Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature?

Question24: When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

Question25: Extreme compression produces the smallest backup file, but it may also reduce:

Question26: If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

Question27: Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

Question28: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration?

Question29: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "resume on disconnect" feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question30: Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

Question31: What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question32: HOTSPOT
Match the following Veeam resource with the corresponding usage example:
Hot Area:

Question33: In a Veeam Backup & Replication simple deployment scenario, the Veeam Backup Server performs the following roles:
-It functions as a management point, coordinates all jobs, controls their scheduling and performs other administrative activities.
-It is used as the default backup repository.
-It is used as a mount server and guest interaction proxy.
On which drive is the Default Backup Repository stored?

Question34: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question35: What is replica metadata used for?

Question36: Which of the following should be taken into account when estimating the amount of disk space necessary to store backups? (Choose two.)

Question37: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question38: Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.)

Question39: Which of the following statements about the Guest Integration Proxy component is true?

Question40: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question41: What is the lowest interval at which a replication job can be scheduled?

Question42: When should you consider disabling multithreaded data transfer?

Question43: After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured?

Question44: Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

Question45: Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain?

Question46: What is the stabilization point in a SureBackup job?

Question47: Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption? (Choose two).

Question48: Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem?

Question49: Which procedure is an option to finalize replica failback?

Question50: HOTSPOT
Match each of the following entities that Veeam Backup & Replication uses to manage tapes with its definition.
Hot Area:

Question51: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature or component is able to utilize SQL transaction log backups for point-in-time restore?

Question52: Which of the following is a limitation imposed on Native Tape Support in Veeam Backup & Replication Standard Edition?

Question53: Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

Question54: Which types of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (Choose two.)

Question55: Which EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from SAN Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question56: Which of the following is the optimal mechanism to provide multiple users with access to a VM running in a Virual Lab?

Question57: Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job?

Question58: Which of the following can be restored from tape using Veeam backup& Replication? (Choose two.)

Question59: Which component is used by Veeam Backup & Replication to transfer data from the Veeam Backup Proxy to an HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance?

Question60: When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance installed by default?

Question61: After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured?

Question62: Does Veeam Backup & Replication support VMware vSphere Hypervisor, a free bare-metal hypervisor?

Question63: Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question64: How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

Question65: Under certain circumstances, VMware Changed Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT information have on the Veeam backup job?

Question66: Which permission roles can be assigned in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager for delegation of responsibilities?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

Question67: Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab for a VMware vSphere environment?

Question68: When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:

Question69: Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?

Question70: When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

Question71: Which of the following are benefits of using DD Boost integration with Dell EMC Data Domain in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose three.)

Question72: Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup?

Question73: Which backup method is described below? "After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM."

Question74: Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?

Question75: When is the full backup created in a backup copy job for each GFS retention point?

Question76: A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?

Question77: Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question78: Which recovery verification tests can be executed when verifying both backups and replicas? (Choose three.)

Question79: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "Resume on Network Disconnect" feature will NOT re-establish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question80: HOTSPOT
In the VeeamWAN folder created by the Veeam Backup & Replication WAN accelerator, select the correct type of source and target data stored in the VeeamWAN folder:

Hot Area:

Question81: Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question82: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question83: Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Question84: What would be the primary benefit of replication from backup files compared to a regular replication process?

Question85: Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

Question86: Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?

Question87: A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization?

Question88: Which of the following is a prerequisite for installation of the Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client?

Question89: After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose?

Question90: Which requirements must be met in order to perform transaction log backups for a database on a Microsoft SQL Server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question91: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question92: Which editions of Veeam Availability Suite fully support Native Tape and vCloud Director?

Question93: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question94: Veeam Backup & Replication in-line deduplication is most helpful when: (Choose two.)

Question95: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

Question96: In Veeam Backup & Replication, encryption works at which of the following levels: (Choose three.)

Question97: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository. Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question98: When using Forward Incremental backups on a CIFS based Backup Repository, which benefit would be realized by performing synthetic fulls rather than active fulls?

Question99: Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during the second run of the replication job?

Question100: Which statement best describes Virtual Lab Manager?

Question101: Which of the following restore options is NOT available to an administrator account in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager?

Question102: Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab?

Question103: Veeam Extract utility can be used to recover VMs from a full backup file (VBK). The extract utility does not require any interaction with Veeam Backup & Replication and can be used as an independent tool on Linux and Microsoft Windows machines.
Where is Veeam Extract utility located?

Question104: From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are installed? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question105: Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

Question106: It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in the I/O Control section of the menu to do this?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question107: Which Dell EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question108: Which of the following describes the Partial Site Failover functionality of Veeam Cloud Connect?

Question109: HOTSPOT
Match each Veeam ONE component with the correct description of its functions.
Hot Area:

Question110: Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing?

Question111: Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment? (Choose two.)

Question112: Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories?

Question113: A Backup Administrator has setup a Backup Job, utilizing Reverse Incremental backup mode. After the first successful backup, an On-Demand Sandbox is deployed and started. How will the On-Demand Sandbox be affected if the Backup Job is started?

Question114: Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question115: Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file?

Question116: Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file?

Question117: Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question118: How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job?

Question119: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question120: Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question121: Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

Question122: Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

Question123: During the SureBackup job execution, redo logs are created for each verified VM. Where are the redo logs for the job located?

Question124: If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?

Question125: Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Question126: If a VM is restored to its original location via Full VM restore while the original VM still exists, the original VM will be:

Question127: Which editions of Veeam Backup & Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?

Question128: Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.)

Question129: HOTSPOT
Match each Cloud Connect concept with its definitions.
Hot Area:

Question130: Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

Question131: Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.)

Question132: Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the Backup Proxy VM?

Question133: A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question134: Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

Question135: Which of the following statements are true when considering the Forever Forward Incremental backup method, on a NTFS-based backup repository? (Choose two.)

Question136: Is it possible to switch between backup modes when creating regular backup files?

Question137: vPower technology is used to enable which of the following features? (Choose three.)

Question138: Which of the following Veeam ONE components have a web-based UI? (Choose two.)

Question139: Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question140: Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question141: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.)